I can't see why or how it refers and even tested for HRT for this kind of therapy.
There should be no difference in risk, and they say the risk is usually after menopause, the reason they will find risk difference between XX and XY is probably because the XY were given estrogen ?
Or like someone else said, progesterone might be good just for a period of time?
Trying to find the full publish, from the abstracts I can't see anything related to trans at all.. I think the editor might just have added those up.
Still, if the risk is low, it would be low for anyone.. unless something increases it, which would be probably unusual