Quote from: Kaimialana on September 17, 2007, 12:43:49 PM
So, for those of us that aren't communicative theorists, sociologists or linguistic anthropologists, does this mean that while some things can be agreed upon, the diverse array of identifications makes it difficult to pin a definition down?
Something like that. I don't know too much about communication theory, but I'll try to explain my view, which is basically a linguistic one.
For background, we need the concept of a 'linguistic sign'. As proposed in the 1910's or so, a sign is a pair of form (that is, a series of sounds or letters) and meaning. In everyday terms, a word is a sign, but so is a sentence; modern cognitive linguistics claims that there is no sharp division between words and idiomatic expressions (or even things like sentence schemata, but let's not go there). In that sense,
red,
good-bye, and
I'll be back are fundamentally pretty similar.
In order to learn a new sign, one has to see or hear it used. That is the main process for learning new language: not from reading a dictionary and a grammar, but from hearing, speaking and getting feedback. Kids obviously do a lot of that, but adults do it as well. Now, since the sign is a pairing of form and meaning, 'learning it' includes both its syntactic properties (e.g. whether one can say 'I'm an androgyne', or 'I androgyned last night') and its semantic properties (i.e. the meaning). On a different axis, 'learning it' involves integrating observed language use (that is, how others use
androgyne) into one's own linguistic and cognitive system. In this process, the frame of reference (or conceptual domain, whatever one's pet theory calls it) is important, and so are the neighbouring concepts in the same frame of reference (in the case of
androgyne, stuff like
gender,
male,
female and what not).
What makes it interesting is that there is an interplay between the community and the individual: language is at the same time something defined by the collective speakers of the language and by each individual personally. A word does not have exactly the same meaning for two people, but the meanings are similar enough that communication is possible. Also, human conceptualisation is to some extent influenced by biology: for instance, the primary colours have a basis in how human vision works, and likewise it seems obvious that the gender terms are to some extent grounded in anatomy.
So, all in all, the formula says essentially that how I interpret
androgyne in the discussions over here is derived from what I mean by the word, in the context of my internal frame of reference, all filtered through my idea of the common frame of reference that this community has.
Or that's how I understood it.

Nfr