few questions I'd like you to think on for me:
During rough sex, when does the woman who's been playfighting it and saying no ACTUALLY start fighting it and meaning, "no?"
During extreme sub/dom activities, when does the consent given prior to the activity become negligible and the submissive party become a victim of being an unwilling participant of abuse or rape?
In the above two situations, who is guilty?
When a woman who willingly takes drugs and submits consent under the influence of those drugs is taken on the basis of her consent, assuming the man played no part in administering or advising those drugs, why should she be able to claim rape?
You're not the only one who's been the victim here, more than once either. So as far as all those posts earlier about me not knowing what it's like or this or that, those won't even be further considered in this discussion.
Very few drugs have to build up to a level in the blood, a therapeutic threshold. Lithium, Lexapro, a few other SSRI's. Most drugs, especially the stronger ones like valium, haledol, klonopin, risperdol, manifest themselves immediately. I would be weary of discussing pharmaceuticals with a pharmacy student and not getting it handed to you

Your, "rufinol," or rather Rohypnol, is not used by medical institutions for the purpose of sedation, if it is then that's an off label use for it and a possible case for malpractice right there.
Now, we are to presume that rape occurred when he pled not guilty and she accused him? I mean jeez, I know it's splitting hairs here but when you're going to take the word of a hospitalized, mentally unstable woman over a licensed MD, evidence has to be considered. The dude was 53, assuming he got his degree at a late age of 35, that's still 18 years of practicing right there with a clean record.
QuoteSedating her is basically giving her rufinol and then taking advantage of the fact. None of those drugs "stabilize" a patient's thoughts, they stabilize her bodily reactions and basically sedate her to one or another extent. In a case like this making it more likely that she was amenable to being raped. Laccdaisical about it even.
You still haven't supported your theory as to her deliberate intoxication by him one bit.
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And you've also your ideas about a "relevant" discussion of rape? That you find my posts to be "unrelated" simply puzzles me. But, as you will.
Relevant discussion of rape always needs to consider that the defendant might just be innocent.