It seems to be common practice for endocrinologists to reduce the estrogen dosage by 50% after removal of the testes (as part of SRS or orchiectomy) and cessation of anti-androgens.
The intent does not seem to be a reduction in effectiveness of hormone therapy, but maintenance at an equivalent level.
Can anybody cite a scientific rationale why estrogen would be more effective with testes and anti-androgens out of the picture?