Hey guys. I have a question. I have been looking into my options for bottom surgery, and I've noticed that a couple of surgeons won't actually close the vaginal opening. For example, on Dr. McGinn's page describing her ring-flap metoidioplasty, this quote can be found:
"Vaginectomy is not required for this surgery, nor is it performed during this surgery. The vaginal opening IS however, significantly reduced to just a few millimeters."
This makes no sense to me. Prior to this surgery, the works have to be removed anyway, so why not close it? I know she uses some vaginal tissue to form the neo-urethra as well, but after that, couldn't it be closed? If it is to drain, I feel like that would be mentioned, and that after draining it would be closed at a future date. I am obviously not a doctor, however. But why wouldn't this be performed? Any insight is appreciated!