Under medieval (and modern) Jewish Law, would a person with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
who has internal and unobservable testes be regarded as male, female, or undefined, and what kind of clothing would s/he be required to wear? And what of someone with Swyer syndrome?

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Quote from: gregcoupe on March 01, 2017, 01:05:23 AM
Under medieval (and modern) Jewish Law, would a person with complete androgen insensitivity syndrome
who has internal and unobservable testes be regarded as male, female, or undefined, and what kind of clothing would s/he be required to wear? And what of someone with Swyer syndrome?

I have almost no knowledge of Jewish Law so consult your local rabbi however the highlighted term may be your answer. With that condition the body is fully feminine and the issue may not be detected until the person reached puberty. The lack of periods would result in the doctors looking for a cause and discovering the condition. Because of the insensitivity, the normal development would be feminine in both mind and body.

Swyer syndrome is a bit more complex and is likely to have the same answer but again, a rabbi would know best.

There is a trans counselor in the Tampa Bay area who is also a rabbi. Her name is Dr. Sara Fackelman. Her website is named aTrans-Life Matters. Just google her name and she e-mail her your question. She is very knowledgeable in Jewish traditions.