Quote from: Alyssa M. on May 26, 2009, 06:56:36 PM
Nichole,
I gather from your comment that you would have GID remain in the DSM. If I am correct in that, why is GID different from homosexuality that it should be in there? I'm not suggesting they are the same, just wondering what the criteria for inclusion would be, and whether at some point after a change in societal mores it might merit removal, even if you think it should remain in now.
In terms of how the book and its definitions are currently used then yes, I am all for keeping the GID component in the DSM, and adding the biological findings of the past 10 years, that Zucker and Blanchard resist mightily, to give a fuller picture of the natural occurrence of transsexuality/->-bleeped-<- as part of human variance.
If it were currently socially acceptable and passable at this time I'd be all for removal and making a classification that would cover "disorders of being treated like pariahs within a binary culture."
I'm thinking that we are not quite yet to that point, Lyssa.
In the meantime we do need coverages for at the least medication costs and at least minimal transitional changes to be covered by insurances and alleviated by medical professionals. The gatekeeping, covering my ass-ness of interactions between medicos and shrinks in terms of GID is going to take some time to dismantle and remake. In the meantime anything that gets people assisted in their transitions and getting info that they need is a net help, imo.
We need the professionals to change the ways they look at us. Not for them to just say "good riddance." BTW, not all "homosexual disorders" have been removed from the DSM. Wouldn't surprise me if Blanchard isn't pushing for a new one to be added: "homosexual transsexuals" and to exclude again all TSes who are "heterosexual" in his taxonomy or "bisexual" which he rejects as even being possible.
QuoteAlso, while I can't argue with your assertion that the DSM isn't intended to pathologize, I get the feeling that many people don't understand that, which is part of the reason that it was important to remove homosexuality. (Or maybe I'm misunderstanding history.) Anyway, I'm curious about your thoughts.
Lots of people, including FontheF and others of their ilk, many therapists or at least therapists in training and transsexuals use the book to pathologize, at least if they can, lots of people.
There's a point that the practitioner needs to see that the "diagnosis" isn't the person and that no one ever exhibits every symptom in any "diagnostic manual." In and of itself that should clue a lot of TSes that if you get 7 of15 (for instance) over a period of 6 mos (whatever) that's usually enough to confirm a diagnosis. Having 15 of 15 is usually taken as prima facie evidence that the patient has read the manual and is claiming symptoms she doesn't actually have. Just the way diagnosis works.
But diagnosis, like it or not often pathologizes on the basis of socio-cultural prejudices (homosexuals were one.) Here's another possibility.
Young man presents to child/adolescence therapist. He's 12 y/o, his parents are AA, father and Cauc, mother. Family reports 3 family moves of 200 mi. + in 12 years and ct. has attended six schools.; Two were for moves and 4 were conduct related. Hx of violent anger, throwing objects, breaking things at home, fights at school and "disrespect" for authority figures both at home, school and within the community.
Child is not adjusting to his new school environment and is characterized by teachers and non-communicative, non-cooperative and hostile. Of 120 school days so far in the school year, Ct has been absent 10 and in ISS 86 due to fights and being disruptive to school discipline and order. The child will often be "diagnosed" with anti-social personality disorder. Yet, teasing for his "mixed race" parentage, repeated family moves during childhood and his general inability to reach some level of "safety" to build relationships, have a solid base of operations for his psyche and life etc. would make me discard that almost immediately and refuse to list such a diagnosis.
Why? Even though he fits the criteria? Because to label a young man of color with ASP at 12 is to condemn him to eternal relegation to society's margins. He will never get the groundings he needs and his bitterness and isolationn and alienation, and resentment will grow, not decrease with that diagnosis.
Like it or not a practitioner who's actually dedicated to "doing no harm" must take into acct things such as that. An adjustment disorder is much more humane, gets him treatment and not censure and leaves the child a chance for change and a decent life. It's far more important for the patient to be helped rather than diagnosed. What I have to do is be able to use the book to do so.
Alas, the nuance is lost on many. Most, it seems to be lost on people with deeply religious viewpoints and many transsexuals ourselves. (That is not necessarily odd, some of the least accepting drug addicts are those that are using AA/NA to recover.
QuoteOne other thing -- what exactly does it mean to "use 20% of your brain capacity"? Is that measured by volume? Does that mean there are parts that are never used, or just that at any time 4/5 of your brain is idle? It's one of these things you hear about, but is not usually stated very clearly.
~Alyssa
What I meant with my statement was that under various stimuli while in an fMRI machine tested schizophrenics show close to or at 100% "lighted" areas without visible indications that they are being "psychotic" at that time.
"Norms" show about 20% "lighted" areas under the same conditions. The evidence appears to lead one to a couple of possible notions. 1) That psychosis may well be involved with psychic overload of the synapses in an overwhelming way. 2) That more brain areas appear to be able to be used than "normal" folks ever seem to find uses for. Schizophrenics do find uses for those areas.