Quote from: Julie Marie on December 07, 2011, 10:37:46 PM
QuoteQuote from: Beth Andrea on Yesterday at 15:04:59
"...far too many homosexuals pedophiles have been caught molesting children for the theory to be false"
FIFY
The point I was making is that some people (not me) make the assertion that pedophiles = men who molest boys = gay men.
Yes, I understand that not all pedophiles are gay men (although some certainly are, just because there are so damn many pedo's) but there are those who justify their homophobia by pointing this out.
Just like in this thread, there are those who justify their conservatiphobia by pointing out "well researched" articles (yet don't link to them so we can make our own minds up) that make outrageous claims like "homophobes get sexually aroused by watching gay male porn."
Would a conservative even consent to watching gay male porn for any reason? Often, the subjects of such studies are college students, who are hard up (err....no pun intended) for money...and if word got out it was a sex study that involved gay porn and social leaning (liberal or conservative), it's been my experience that liberals would go and pose as conservatives in order to skew the results. (Based on personal admissions to me FTF by liberals)
So, to repeat...got a link to the original study?
ETA: The original link was to an article, and the article did have a link to the study. I have some reading to do...
ETA 2: The link is to an abstract...
QuoteAbstract
The authors investigated the role of homosexual arousal in exclusively heterosexual men who admitted negative affect toward homosexual individuals. Participants consisted of a group of homophobic men (n = 35) and a group of nonhomophobic men (n = 29); they were assigned to groups on the basis of their scores on the Index of Homophobia (W. W. Hudson & W. A. Ricketts, 1980). The men were exposed to sexually explicit erotic stimuli consisting of heterosexual, male homosexual, and lesbian videotapes, and changes in penile circumference were monitored. They also completed an Aggression Questionnaire (A. H. Buss & M. Perry, 1992). Both groups exhibited increases in penile circumference to the heterosexual and female homosexual videos. Only the homophobic men showed an increase in penile erection to male homosexual stimuli. The groups did not differ in aggression. Homophobia is apparently associated with homosexual arousal that the homophobic individual is either unaware of or denies.
...and to read the entire report one has to purchase it. I'll purchase, and get back to the thread. One thing that caught my attention is the statement, "Only the homophobic...showed an increase...to male homosexual stimuli."
"Only"? Does this mean "all" homophobic men, or what? Out of 35 subjects? (BTW, a single study that has just 64 total subjects cannot be called "definitive" by any means.) Rarely does a study show 100% cause-and-effect, especially when dealing with human behavior. So was it "only" 34 men? "Only" 12? Or "only" 1? We don't know yet, because we haven't read the report...but the conclusion, that
homophobia is associated with homosexual arousal, is not supported by the abstract.