Quote from: suzifrommd on May 09, 2014, 11:33:49 AM
I'm on page 104 of the SOC v7, under the section labeled "Criteria for Feminizing/Masculinizing Hormone Therapy". Item #1 says "Persistent, well-documented gender dysphoria".
I have to read that as saying that the WPATH wants a diagnosis of gender identity dysphoria before hormones are prescribed. (Is there some other way to read it?)
Because there is no one presentation for our condition - each of us seems to experience it totally differently - diagnosis criteria is highly open to individual interpretation, and each local practitioner will have their own test, right?
I am in Melbourne, Australia. Applied here, the WPATH requirements accommodate the range of GID experienced by those being assessed. What seems to be a block is that if I have not thought of myself as a female from my earliest memory and have opposed by birth gender continuously, the process is seen as (and could be applied to result in) gatekeeping.
My experience here is that I am not at that extreme (I knew that) and the assessment served mainly to discount any other issues. After we had completed that work (mine took a few months - I have more years to cover!!) the informed consent part was very quick and perfunctory. I once referred to it to my therapist (not the Psychiatrist doing the assessment work) that the process is one of "very well-informed consent" meaning the Psychiatrist was well informed about me before I gave my informed consent. She didn't disagree.
Open to individual interpretation? Yes and I think that is right. Necessary? Perhaps. Frustrating? Yes but I persevered as it is the only avenue open here but not onerous in my case. Harmful? For me, no. But I didn't have any issues around access to the process that some encounter or any great and immediate distress arising from GID -just slowly getting to the end of my rope. Beneficial? I'm still out on that one!
A few years ago (and others may recall it better than I can), there was court case here where it was found that sufficient screening/psych assessment may not have occurred. By "informed consent only" standards, arguably more than enough was done. In a legal sense, perhaps not enough. What is left as an unknown is that in cases like that, would more therapy made any difference? Maybe, maybe not. We are dealing with individuals here, not a herd. One size doesn't fit all.