I still fail to comprehend how anyone could be duped into doing such a thing, or how it could possibly have any medical relevance. How would a shot of progesterone, when you've been on testosterone for months, perhaps years, induce a period in the absence of substantial estrogen, especially when your ovulation has terminated? Sure, you still have eggs, and you still have ovaries (at least, in the hypothetical case in this discussion). But the self-cleaning feature of the female reproductive system should take care of any residual buildup that may have occurred subsequent to the last formal menstruation, I would assume, thus negating any need for subsequent periods.
Sorry... I realize we've concluded it makes no sense, but I'm still puzzling over how a "medical professional" could promote such a strange practice.
SD