Quote from: Nikki on October 11, 2008, 06:16:36 PM
Quote from: Princess Katrina on October 11, 2008, 01:21:57 PM
You see, many people interpret what they read in the Bible based purely on modern culture. Now, there are many areas in the Bible where one should apply modern cultural ideologies to the concepts portrayed there, but if one loses the context of the original culture, one loses the true meanings of many of the things in the Bible. One such example is the Greek Word in the New Testament that is consistantly translated as "Homosexual" in most every modern English translation. The actual Greek Word literally means "soft men" and the connotations of the word in the original cultural context is men who are weak willed, who are easily swayed, highly open to suggestion, and unwilling to ever take a stance on anything. "Modern" (going back hundreds of years, though) interpretation of "soft men" implies effiminate men, who are the stereotype of gay men, but this stereotype did not exist in the time the New Testament was written, especially within the Greek language, a language born out of a culture that revered male homosexuality and even, in many ways, condemned heterosexuality as a necessary evil.
What is your correct interpretation of this passage? And why? 27 in particular strikes me as quite explicit and clear in it's meaning.
Note while I was raised christian I am now an atheist and don't believe this stuff, just asking because what it says doesn't look like it can be reconciled with meaning rejection of "soft men".
Rom 1:24-27 KJV
24 Wherefore God also gave them up to uncleanness through the lusts of their own hearts, to dishonour their own bodies between themselves:
25 Who changed the truth of God into a lie, and worshipped and served the creature more than the Creator, who is blessed for ever. Amen.
26 For this cause God gave them up unto vile affections: for even their women did change the natural use into that which is against nature:
27 And likewise also the men, leaving the natural use of the woman, burned in their lust one toward another; men with men working that which is unseemly, and receiving in themselves that recompence of their error which was meet.
First off, toss the KJV. The King James Version is an obscenely terrible translation that was edited to fit the personal views of King James where he disagreed with what is actually in the original text. I would maybe say it's "better than nothing," but even then, I'd rather someone not have a Bible than have the KJV.
Before I bother getting the passage out of other translations, as well as a literal translation direct from the original Greek text, let me say that this is one of many passages where people focus on the homosexuality involved and ignore the primary issue involved.
There are many passages against sexual immorality, which can loosely be defined as any sexual act performed outside the "confines" of marriage. Note, specifically, the use of the word "lust." They were not expressing love for each other, nor having sex as part of their love for each other. They were merely fulfilling lustful desires with no concern for consequences and no descrimination of who they had sex with, more than just men with men.
On the note of consequences, there was a legitimate reason for an anti-anal sex note on the grounds of the unsanitary nature. In that time period, they did not have condoms. They could not have "safe anal sex." The primary anti-gay (specifically males) passage from early in the old testament is arguably for that very purpose as there is an incredible amount of rules in the pentateuch that has to do with sanitary precautions to prevent/avoid disease and the spread thereof.
Now, here's a translation I frequently use because it's an "easy to read" translation. I do not recommend it as an "only translation used," however, because it often paraphrases a little more than it should. It's called the New Living Translation. We'll see if it does in this particular case when I compare it to other translations, including a direct, literal translation.
"
24So God let them go ahead and do whatever shameful things their hearts desired. As a result, they did vile and degrading things with each other's bodies.
25Instead of believing what they knew was the truth about God, they deliberately chose to believe lies. So they worshiped the things God made but not the Creator himself, who is to be praised forever. Amen.
26That is why God abandoned them to their shameful desires. Even the women turned against the natural way to have sex and instead indulged in sex with each other.
27And the men, instead of having normal sexual relationships with women, burned the lust for each other. Men did shameful things with other men and, as a result, suffered within themselves the penalty they so richly deserved." ~Romans 1:24-27, NLT
First off, I'll again say it's more to do with general sexual immorality than anything else. Note, again, the use of the word lust.
The fact that they were performing homosexual acts is mentioned more as an historical fact. Like it or not, there is an accuracy in referring to homosexual acts as "unnatural." Even from an athiestic, evolutionary standpoint, humans are physically designed for heterosexual sex, not homosexual sex. Those of us who are lesbian or gay have to derive alternative methods of pleasing our lovers. The term "natural" is frequently used nowadays, in many ways as a result of the rise of gay pride, to refer to that which does occur in nature, which would be an appropriate way to use the term. However, the term is just as appropriately applicable as referring to a process following the course it is designed to for.
Now, here's the passage out of the New International Version.
"
24Therefore God gave them over in the sinful desires of their hearts to sexual impurity for the degrading of their bodies with one another.
25They exchanged the truth of God for a lie, and worshiped and served created things rather than the Creator—who is forever praised. Amen.
26Because of this, God gave them over to shameful lusts. Even their women exchanged natural relations for unnatural ones.
27In the same way the men also abandoned natural relations with women and were inflamed with lust for one another. Men committed indecent acts with other men, and received in themselves the due penalty for their perversions." ~Romans 1:24-27, NIV
Again, note that it states "lusts." Also, it states "sexual impurity." In the Jewish faith, at least back then (I don't know how much modern Jews hold with this), performing the sexual act with anyone left you impure for the rest of the day, and that includes sex with your own husband or wife within a heterosexual marriage.
I'm also going to comment on "received in themselves the due penalty for their perversions." They were performing sexual acts that are, from a health standpoint, quite risky, and one can presume from the passage that they spread diseases among each other in this situation, which, as I mentioned, was an issue not to be overlooked since they had no method of safe sex.
Okay, now a direct literal translation, though I'll correct the word order for English.
"
24Therefore God also gave them over in the lusts of their hearts to uncleanness, to dishonor their bodies among themselves,
25who exchanged the truth of God in the lie and worshiped and served the creature rather than the One having created, who is blessed to the ages. Amen.
26On account of this God gave them over to passions of dishonor; for even their females exchanged the natural use for the use against nature,
27and likewise also the males leaving the natural use of the female, were inflamed by their lusts for one another, males with males committing shamelessness and getting back in themselves the penalty which was fitting for their error." ~Romans 1:24-27, Original Greek
I'll also note here that, except in the NLT, none of these specify the women having lesbian sex. One can presume they were having lesbian sex based on the clear statement that the men were having gay sex, but we do not actually know if they were having lesbian sex, using toys to masturbate, or maybe even performing acts of beastiality. We just know that they were not having sex with the men. Whatever they were doing, they were
all giving in to purely lustful desires and not coupling out of love for each other.
That particular passage is also the only passage in the Bible that even hints at lesbian sex, at least that I've found, and as I stated earlier, I have studied the Bible extensively in regards to what it says about lesbian sex since I was identifying as lesbian before I even realized I'm female.
Also, in specific note to your question about the word consistantly translated as "homosexual." That word is not used in the passage you cited, not in any of the translations, even.